1. Evaluation Area 4, Field Measurement and Analysis, requires OROs to demonstrate their capability and:
A. Characterize the release and control radiation exposure.
B. Measure and analyze release levels within the nuclear facility.
C. Measure individuals’ exposure levels and assess their need for decontamination.
D. Develop computer modeling techniques to predict the impact of a release on the population.
2. When an evaluator sees a deviation from the plan or procedures but does not directly observe a evaluator should:
A. Document the deviation.
B. Point out the deviation to the participant.
C. Write up an exercise issue.
D. Ignore the deviation.
3. A major purpose of the preliminary feedback session is to:
A. Inform the participants of exercise issues that will be included in the report.
B. List deficiencies and ARCAs that the ORO will need to address.
C. Discuss each evaluator’s observations and conclusions.
D. Conduct a preliminary discussion of positive and negative aspects of the exercise.
4. Which of the following is an example of a protective action?
A. A dose limit of 5 to 25 REM for emergency workers.
B. Use of potassium iodide to block the thyroid’s uptake of radioiodines.
C. A limit on the radionuclide concentration permitted in food.
D. Installation of safety systems in a nuclear facility.
5. Which of the following is evaluated under Evaluation Area 2, Protective Action Decision making
A. At least two communication systems are available.
B. Provision of adequate supplies of potassium iodide.
C. Decisions to control emergency workers’ radiation exposure.
D. Ambient radiation measurements are made and recorded at appropriate locations.
6. The four emergency classification levels, arranged from lowest to highest, are:
A. General Emergency, Alert, Site Area Emergency, Notification of Unusual Event.
B. Notification of Unusual Event, Alert, Site Area Emergency, General Emergency.
C. Alert, Notification of Unusual Event, General Emergency, Site Area Emergency.
D. Site Area Emergency, Notification of Unusual Event, Alert, General Emergency.
7. In demonstrating primary alerting and notification, the ORO should:
A. Broadcast at least one emergency alert message or test message.
B. Describe in an interview the required elements of an EAS message.
C. Activate the alert signal, followed by a test of the EAS system.
D. Demonstrate broadcast procedures, short of actual transmission.
8. Decontamination of evacuees/emergency workers:
A. Must be demonstrated on at least 6 individuals.
B. May be simulated and conducted by interview.
C. Should be set up and demonstrated as in an actual emergency.
D. Must be addressed in the plan but does not need to be set up or demonstrated.
9. OROs should maintain enough inventories of potassium iodide for:
A. Emergency workers only.
B. Emergency workers, institutionalized persons, and all members of the general public.
C. Emergency workers and institutionalized persons only.
D. Emergency workers, institutionalized persons, and general public within the plume pathway EPZ if stipulated in
10. According to FEMA’s evaluation philosophy, response activities in an exercise:
A. Must be performed in strict accordance with the emergency response plan.
B. Should be based on the emergency response plan and procedures.
C. May not deviate from the emergency response plan.
D. Are based on the Extent of Play, not the emergency response plan.
11. To ensure objectivity and accuracy, an evaluator should:
A. Coordinate with other evaluators at the same location.
B. Write the Evaluation Module during the exercise, while impressions are fresh.
C. Avoid discussing the exercise until the Evaluation Module is completed.
D. Guard against being swayed by explanations given by the participants.
12. Evaluation Area 5 evaluates the ORO’s capabilities with regard to alert, notification, and public refers to:
A. Distribution of an instructional message through the Emergency Alert System.
B. Activation of an attention-getting warning signal.
C. Providing instructions to assist the public in carrying out protective actions.
D. Notifying emergency workers of the existence of an emergency situation.
13. If an evaluator sees that an event that should have occurred is omitted, he/she should:
A. Remind the player in a friendly manner.
B. Document its omission.
C. Tell the player an issue has been recorded.
D. Give the benefit of the doubt and log it anyway.
14. NUREG-0654/FEMA-REP-1:
A. Describes the methodology to be used in evaluating REP exercises.
B. Establishes the objectives to be met during REP exercises.
C. Documents the procedures an ORO will use when responding to an incident.
D. Provides planning standards for offsite radiological emergency response plans.
15. Which of the following is an example of immediate correction?
A. The evaluator notices incorrect times entered on the event log and changes them.
B. The evaluation team leader finds problems in an evaluator’s documentation and revises it before submission.
C. A player performs a task unsatisfactorily, receives retraining, and repeats the task satisfactorily.
D. One participant catches an error by another and points out the problem.
16. Keeping facility staff informed through periodic briefings is an important aspect of:
A. Protective action decisionmaking.
B. Direction and control.
C. Mobilization.
D. Facilities.
17. An important part of preparing for an evaluator assignment is:
A. Correlating the evaluation criteria with the ORO’s response plan.
B. Deciding which criteria to focus on during exercise play.
C. Developing an exercise-specific Extent of Play.
D. Determining whether the response plan is consistent with the planning standards.
18. How is the use of immediate correction in an exercise determined?
A. Negotiated before the exercise as part of the Extent of Play.
B. Decided by the RAC chair in consultation with input from the evaluator.
C. Decided on a case-by-case basis by the Exercise Controller.
D. Determined by the evaluation team in pre-exercise meetings.
19. An evaluator should:
A. Avoid interacting with participants.
B. Choose an observation post and stay there without moving around.
C. Develop a detailed time record for observed events.
D. Help participants by explaining plans and procedures.
20. Which question is at the core of exercise evaluation?
A. Was this criterion adequately demonstrated?
B. Was performance as described in the general Extent of Play?
C. Did participants precisely follow local procedures?
D. Has the ORO met all of the checklist criteria for this objective?
21. In evaluating the communication system, you find that the backup system is not functional. Yo on exercise performance. You should:
A. Ignore the lack of a functioning backup system because it was not needed.
B. Document the fact but not write up an exercise issue.
C. Advise the EOC director to correct the situation during the exercise.
D. Document the fact and write up an exercise issue.
22. During the exercise, reception center facilities for evacuees:
A. May be demonstrated through a combination of interview and videotapes.
B. Are assumed to be operable if there are sufficient written records of past performance.
C. Should be set up and demonstrated as they would be in an actual emergency.
D. Must be included in the emergency response plan but do not need to be demonstrated.
23. During an exercise you are evaluating whether the ORO has the ability to select, establish, and traffic and access control points. This capability is evaluated under:
A. Evaluation Area 1, Emergency Operations Management.
B. Evaluation Area 6, Support Operations/Facilities.
C. Evaluation Area 2, Protective Action Decisionmaking.
D. Evaluation Area 3, Protective Action Implementation.
24. A loss of offsite and onsite power has caused a serious safety condition at a nuclear facility. A that could exceed PAGs within the plant boundaries but is not expected to exceed PAGs outside the Emergency Classification Level is this situation likely to trigger?
A. Notification of Unusual Event (NOUE)
B. General Emergency (GE)
C. Alert
D. Site Area Emergency (SAE)
25. Exercise evaluation focuses on whether the jurisdiction:
A. Protects the health and safety of the public and emergency workers.
B. Meets the 34 objectives specified in REP-14.
C. Follows the emergency plan and procedures exactly as written.
D. Responds adequately to the emergency in the absence of a plan.
26. The ____________ identifies demonstrations and simulations, indicates what evaluators should specifies acceptable simulation limits.
A. Emergency Response Plan
B. Narrative Summary
C. Evaluation Module
D. Extent of Play
27. An exercise issue is:
A. An activity that is unsatisfactorily performed and then adequately performed after retraining, if negotiated in adv Extent of Play.
B. An instance where the criterion is met but public health and safety are potentially at risk.
C. A performance problem that is linked with specific NUREG-0654 standards and evaluation criteria and has the
public health and safety.
D. Any action that deviates from the procedures spelled out in the ORO’s response plan or implementing procedu
28. A PAG is:
A. The amount of radiation dose that will be avoided by taking a protective action.
B. The likelihood of delayed health risks from a particular radiation dose.
C. The projected radiation dose that warrants taking protective action.
D. The degree of acute health risk a protective action is permitted to have.
29. During the exercise activity, an evaluator should:
A. Fill out the Evaluation Module form.
B. Look up NUREG-0654/FEMA-REP-1 references for issues.
C. Start writing the narrative summary.
D. Take concise notes about what you see and hear.
30. What should an evaluator do about documenting Federal play in the exercise?
A. Ignore Federal participation.
B. Prohibit Federal representatives from playing.
C. Act as a Federal participant.
D. Document Federal play.
31. The Evaluation Modules completed by evaluators are:
A. Given to exercise participants for the purpose of staff improvement.
B. Used by the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board to determine liability.
C. Used by the FEMA region to prepare the overall exercise report.
D. Provided to the NRC as documentation of exercise findings.
32. The capability to notify emergency personnel of an emergency situation or of a change in emer is evaluated under:
A. Facilities.
B. Protective action decisionmaking.
C. Mobilization.
D. Direction and control.
33. The area within a 10-mile radius of a nuclear facility is known as the:
A. Ingestion exposure pathway
B. Ingestion EPZ
C. Plume EPZ
D. Emergency response zone
34. In the post-plume phase, field measurement and analysis focuses on:
A. Characterizing the extent of the release and the direction of the plume path.
B. Determining the size of the population that may require immediate evacuation.
C. Protection of the public from contaminated food and water.
D. Obtaining peak measurements in the plume.
35. Exercise activities are managed by:
A. The participants.
B. The evaluation team.
C. FEMA headquarters staff.
D. The controller.